Home Sweet Home

Home Sweet Home
We're all in this together
Showing posts with label Jewish history. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Jewish history. Show all posts

Thursday, October 4, 2012

A Jewish analysis of the Christian perspective of Judaism and the Bible




I will take one answer in an online forum that a Christian answered from his faith’s perspective about the similarities between Christianity and Judaism and highlight some common mistakes that one can clear up by reading the Tanakh without using the NT concepts or claims about it. I'll quote the Christian, and then clear up the mistakes after the quote...I have edited a few of my answers with correcting typos and misspellings and clarifying for language since several people have called me to task for them.


"To my knowledge Christianity is the continuation of the Old Testament, as hundreds of prophecies were fulfilled in the New Testament by our Lord Jesus Christ."

Nope, Jews have NO "Old Testament". That is a rather insulting renaming of an adaptation/alteration of the Hebrew Bible that in fact violates God's commandments (made twice in Tanakh ) not to alter even the tiniest portion of it. Tertullian, the early church father who did this renamed their adaptation for the express purpose to designate that their doctrine had superceded what God declared eternal, their new covenant replace what he called an “old". The New Testament doctrine clearly does not "continue" the eternal covenant. Jesus fits absolutely none of the criteria to be the Davidic Messiah prophesied in the Tanakh as evidenced by this listing of the prophecies of the Davidic Messiah in the Hebrew bible found here:
http://thejewishhome.org/counter/Wanted.pdf

Jesus fits the Chritsian’ religion’s redefinitions and once it's notion of *messiah* changed from the Tanakh’s prophecy of a king of David’s lineage who would break the yolk of political and religious persecution for all and rule with humility, justice and mercy over Israel, to bring peace and universal knowledge of God..into a sacrificed savior deity and a kingdom focusing on the afterlife to meld the Hellenized and Romanized concepts, Christians became an extension of Rome. Read this for greater understanding of the purpose and development of Christianity as a tool to negate the Jews as a covenant nation people and make them a part of the Roman Empire. http://answers.yahoo.com/question/index?qid=20101126171108AA4md2a edit to add the actual answer there since I was asked to put it here rather than make people copy paste a link


Christianity became a tool of the Roman Empire fairly early on in it's spread.
Religion and politics were inseparable in the ancient world, kings usually represented incarnate manifestations of their gods on earth. Polytheistic believers across the ancient Levant were accustomed to their political leaders telling them what gods were to be venerated during their rule and which deity their ruler was representative of in human form. Adding a new deity or giving a new name to an ancient deity whose belief was already established was how the conquering peoples assimilated their conquered. Tanakh recorded that any time such a practice of a Jewish king telling the Jews that they were to worship a foreign deity, the entire Jewish people suffered and did so at the very hands of the people whose deity they had left God to serve. That lesson is told right in our Jewish Bible in several dramatic narratives, the same one the Christians have as an adaptation of their Old Testament, yet they rarely see this in the story because their New Testament does not focus on the contextual meaning of the narrative, but imposes redefined meanings to support it’s dogma, often using topsy-turvy meaning to words and changes translations of phrases in a number of other places.
Early Christian leaders did not want their flock to know the Paschal lamb represented a false man-god of Egypt, so they changed it into a sacrifice for sin to justify human sacrifice (or deicide depending on whether or not they are calling Jesus God in human form). Sin sacrifices are explained in detail in many places, and having nothing to do with the Passover sacrifice. Exodus makes no reference to the use of the Paschal lamb’s blood for expiating sin. Rather, it describes the blood on the door as an act of defiance to false gods and allegiance to the God of Israel. The sacrifice to God showed the Egyptians that the life force (blood) representing their deity was spilled by the Hebrew slaves and their god was powerless over the God of Israel to do a thing about it. It was an act of rejection of the gods of Egypt and alliance to the God of Israel, and that’s in the Torah in Exodus in context. Rather than show that Isaiah was slamming a man for calling himself a man/god representing Venus, Christian dogma personifies and makes a proper name from their Latin translation's word for star and turns that story into something about a fall of angels (no where mentioned in that narrative at ALL) to create giving of the "name" Lucifer for a demon-god of their underworld hell. Every aspect of Jewish belief is given a new spin. Hellenized Jews already apostate to Judaism after four centuries of their occupation and Roman citizens of Judea and the Galilee, desired to entice other Jews to worship as the Greeks that they believed superior in philosophy and knowledge. Jews had laws forbidding these concepts outright so they created texts that tried syncretism, their efforts to claim ,see this is what it was supposed to have been all along. However, the reality remains that those beliefs of incarnate savior deities and human sacrifice are identical to the beliefs and practices that the Torah demonized.
Tammuz/Adonis (melded in Roman occupied lands along with and became Mithras) were incarnate sacrificed savior deities who had followers of apostate Jews in the North (Galilee) and areas of Paul's travels. Tammuz and the Romanized version of the Zoroastrian Mithras were both born of virgins (a concept having nothing to do with the Davidic Messiah and violating Tanakh) and their death was said to have brought their people reconciliation to their *sinful natures*. Being born with a burden of sin is a belief of the pagan peoples surrounding Judea and the Gallilee, and contradicts the Torah notion that humans may master evil inclination (from Genesis) Tammuz was said to die and be reborn each spring. Tammuz worship had become widespread even before the destruction of the First Temple, and had so many apostate Jews as followers, it was condemned in Tanakh in the book of Ezekiel. There is still even a Hebrew month named for this pagan man/god despite the condemnation of his worship in the Holy Scriptures. Sir James Frazier's book, The Golden Bough, is useful to learning about the widespread concept of Savior Kings that was not only found in the Middle east but in Europe and helped to aid the rapid spread of Christianity. Noted Oxford scholar and award winning Historian Richard Fletcher's
The Barbarian Conversion: From Paganism to Christianity also helps one to understand the development of many beliefs and rituals found in modern Christianity. The Christian concept of hell can be found in Plato's "Republic" in the myth of Er and in Gorgias referring to Tartarus.
At best, Christianity is a little less than 1/3 based on Jewish precept, but primarily a mixture of the beliefs of the polytheistic peoples in and round Judea and the Galilee of the first century. Once one begins an in-depth study of the religious practices and beliefs of all the peoples surrounding the Jews in the centuries just preceding the beginning of Christianity, one can see it was an effort to do away with Israel as a distict people and replace Judaism.
A large percentage of the early church fathers who became martyrs did so at the hands of their co-religionists of competing sects when Christianity was not so clearly defined as a tool of the Roman empire.

Any group that would threaten Roman authority would be persecuted by the Romans. Hundreds of thousands of Jews had been crucified to quell rebellion against Roman authority.

 This would likely have included any followers of any messiah hopeful (still speaking of the Jewish Bible concept) ; such a person could threaten Roman rule, since the prophetic vision of Judaism of "the messiah" is of a RULER, a king, who breaks the yolk of political oppression and persecution for all and brings about universal brotherhood, peace and knowledge of God. Therefore the early Christian groups (or followers of a living Jesus who hoped he could one day rule) who did not view Jesus as a divine incarnation or look to him as a sacrifice for sin, but perhaps hoped he would be reincarnated to do the job would most certainly have been a threat.

Yet Roman history and Jewish history both have documentary evidence to reveal that the early Christians separated themselves from the Jewish rebellion against Roman imposition of their pagan relgions into Jewish life and they refused to ally  with the Jews in either first or second Jewish revolts instigated by Jews refusing to give Temple tithes to the upkeep of Roman pagan temples and refusing to set up pagan statues in the Temple of Jerusalem.

Since Jesus was never an anointed ruler, he did not fit the job description or definition of "mosiach" in the Hebrew language. However, once the doctrine of the New Testament that changed the Tanakh concept and prophecy of the Davidic messiah within their doctrine from meaning an anointed king who will do specific things promised by God, and use the title to mean an incarnate deity, a sacrifice for sin and a "kingdom" not of this world, this effectively changed the Christians from being enemies of Rome to tools of Rome! Those beliefs also clearly separated themselves from the Jewish people when they took on beliefs directly forbidden in the eternal covenant of Torah between God and Israel.

The Temple treasury was raided in 66CE by the Roman governor of Judea, Florius and thousands of Jews were massacred in Jerusalem.

The early Christians did not take part in the revolt incited by that massacre. They had separated from the customs, beliefs and from the Jewish people themselves by this time. Clearly, the Romans already regarded the Christians as a separate religion group, as objective historical evidence we know that the emperor Nerva (96‑98 C.E.) freed the Christians from paying the Fiscus Judaicus, the Jewish capitation tax decreed upon all Jews as a punishment for the revolt of 66‑73 C.E. The Christians had actually petitioned their Roman overlords to be considered a separate group from the Jews. 

Yet today, many Christians, especially groups that wish to misappropriate Jewish identity while strangely displaying contempt for what makes the Jewish people the Jewish people, will insist that all the early Christians were Jews, or that it was Jewish persecution that ran them out of the Jewish community!
Overwhelming historical evidence refutes both those fallacies.

Emperor Hadrian later attempted to wipe out Judaism after they revolted against the previous Emperor, Trajan. He built a Roman temple to Jupiter on top of the ruins of the old Jewish temple in Jerusalem, which had been destroyed in 70 CE, and is said to have burnt the Torah on top of the Temple Mount in 135 CE .
He then renamed Judea, Palestina, a Latinized version of the name of the Philistines, to insult the Jews and eliminate the history of Jewish presence.
Christianity has never been a unified belief, from the earliest days of the Didache (instructions to the apostles on how to conduct church affairs) there were conflicts on how much Judaic influence should remain (was Jesus a god or not?) and it was often a very nasty affair. The Gnostics were largely killed off by their fellow Christians, but some Gnostic aspects do remain. A study of the Nag Hammadi library (translations from the Coptic are online) can help you discern this. Christianity really has little to do with Judaism other than an attempt to replace it with the beliefs of people who conquered the Jews.
A 2nd time Christians refused to ally themselves with the Jews was the 2nd Jewish revolt against Rome. They allied themselves to the Romans. This led to Davidic messiah hopeful, Simeon Bar Kochba,( briefly an actual anointed ruler) to view them as the enemies of Israel.

Simeon Bar Kochba was an actual, honest to goodness messiah. He was an anointed ruler of Israel. He is referred to as a failed messiah because  he failed to do the job of the DAVIDIC ruler whose humble rule (he wasn't too humble) brings about universal brotherhood, justice, peace and knowledge of God.  Unlike the failed Christian candidate, Jesus, Simeon bar Kochba's ancestry actually fit the hoped for lineage, that added to the hopes he was the man for the job. 
After Bar Kochba's murder and defeat Christians were once again rewarded by Rome and not expelled along with the Jews. It is noteworthy that Jews who looked to Bar Kochba as *the* Messiah did not view him as an incarnate manifestation of god, never relied upon him as a  medium of atonement, nor did they view his murder by Rome as a sacrifice for sin in violation of Torah. Once he died without completing the job of the messiah, he was also abandoned as being believed to be the Davidic messiah.  He wasn't turned into a demigod human sacrifice rejecting all that God told Israel at Sinai.

After Constantine - First Christian Emperor of Rome (285-337 CE) the Roman empire was Christian and it was used as a tool of conquest and assimilation throughout Europe.

 The doctrines of their "New" Testament were even named for the express purpose of claimng to have done away with the eternal covenant of Israel, they renamed an "Old" covenant.

While all peoples have influenced one another, the groups of Jews who adopted the most Hellenized philosophies and practices, died out centuries ago, while the Pharisees, or separatists,whose purpose *as* a separate group originated to prevent syncretization of Hellenist beliefs into Judaism, survived. That's the Judaism we have today, the one that rejected the Greek texts being spread by Hellenized Jews and then the later Romans and finally, by the early church.
It was not until the 1400's that the last kindgom of Europe became officially Christian.
The core doctrine of the New Testament that we know today as Christianity began as an attempt to negate the Jewish people as a separate covenant nation and assimilate them in Roman occupied Judea and the Galilee, and for syncretism of beliefs of the Hellenized Jews and Romans living there. Its holy texts and precepts depend on turning the beliefs of Judaism topsy-turvy in many regards. It is so very different from the concept of the nature of God to the manner that humans relate to God and to each other. Christianity borrowed words, phrases, and many of the stories of the ancient Hebrews, but reassigned to them meanings that are MUCH closer to the Romanized and Hellenized concepts of Roman occupied Judea.


"1. They both acknowledge the existence of sin." < One of the three most egregious sins for the covenant of israel is idolatry/worship of a false god. Worship of a man as a god is such a sin; what New Testament doctrine obligates one to do, is directly forbidden by Commandments of God in the Torah, both prohibited for Jews and called an abomination. Human sacrifice is an abomination, incarnate deities are idolatry and separate the Jewish soul from his people and from God unless they repent.The NT changes Torah's concept of sin and also imposes an inherent burden of a sinful nature that Torah does not have. From Genesis forward, God teaches in Torah that humans are born pure, and have both an inclination to good and an inclination to do bad, and that we may master our evil nature and repent directly for sins. The very first time the word sin appears in the Torah, in Genesis God says we can master our evil inclination.


"2. "Both religions acknowledge the existence of God the Father."; Torah teaches that ALL humans are children of god, brethren, and all equal before God, (even messiahs are not above God's law) and as all children of one God, equal justice and judgment are also from God. New Testament doctrine claims only its adherents are children of God after they profess faith in Jesus as their god as evidenced by so much of the rest of his answer.


3. "They both acknowledge the existence of angels and Satan"

 But their nature is very different. In the Torah, angels are without free will and HaSatan is an adversary to HUMANS, not an adversary to God. There is no fall of angels. In the Christian religion, both narratives their New Testament claims to teach about a fall of angels, were narratives that prophets were harshly condemning kings for calling themselves incarnate gods. The prophets condemn  the very notion that a human could become an incarnate deity. (in both Isaiah and Ezekiel) In fact, there is no Lucifer in the Hebrew bible and Ezekiel doesn't even mention Satan or a devil. http://answers.yahoo.com/question/index?qid=20110112183329AA7PFsR

edit: Same request so here I'm posting corrected edits of my past answer there;
Isaiah was written in Hebrew and the word lucifer is not found within the text of the Hebrew book Isaiah. The word heylel that is translated into "Lucifer" in the Latin Vulgate, in Hebrew means star, or light bearing, contextually is clearly referring to the "morning star" or planet Venus. The Latin Vulgate translation appeared about a thousand years after Isaiah wrote his text in Hebrew that makes no mention of a demon deity of the underworld named Lucifer.
 
The word lucifer means star or light bearing in Latin. Isaiah wrote in the Hebrew language, the word lucifer is not in Isaiah’s writings. The Hebrew word  heylel, meaning star was not a proper name in the text Isaiah wrote. In the English translation of the Christian Old Testament they make the Latin word lucifer into a proper name (Lucifer) and then personify that word referring to the planet Venus, known by the ancients in the Levant as the morning star. The NT doctrine ignores the contextual meaning of Isaiah's writing and turns this into a story about a fallen angel turned devil. This whole narrative is about Isaiah using his vision from God to condemn Nebuchadnezzar for styling himself a god/man. Isaiah as a prophet of God believed that God did not deceive all Israel at Sinai about His nature and did not lie that God does not become a man. God's incorporeal unchangeable nature means no man becomes a God. Nebuchadnezzar believed himself to be the representation of Venus, the morning star, on earth. Isaiah is condemning a human for calling himself a god; there is no reference made at all to HaSatan OR to any entity known as a devil there.
****There is no "fall" of any angels in the Hebrew Bible. I find it interesting that both passages of Tanakh that are linked to a fall of angels in Christian doctrine, in their context in the Hebrew Bible are condemning the notion that men can become gods.*****
The Christian concept of hell can also be better understood by reading the rendition of the ancient Myth of Er in Plato's book, the Republic. It and Plato's work Gorgias, he wrote that souls were judged after death and those who received punishment were sent to Tartarus. The Christian concept of hell did not come from the Torah, it came from the Hellenized Jews and Romans who wrote the New Testament replacement theology.
Many of the beliefs and concepts of Christianity borrowed terminology and outward appearance from Judaism, but reassigned different meanings to those words and concepts, sometimes at complete contradiction to the tenets of faith through Torah.
Once the doctrine of the New Testament appeared that changed the Tanakh concept of messiah meaning an anointed king, to mean a god incarnate as human as a sacrifice for sin and a "kingdom" not of this world, thus appealing to Hellenized Jews and Romans, this effectively changed the Christians from being enemies of Rome to tools of Rome. After Constantine , the First Christian Emperor of Rome (285-337 CE) the entire Roman empire was Christian.
I have recently seen some Christians try to point to a passage in Ezekiel as a place referring to the fall of Satan. However, HaSatan is also not found at all in the entire passage. In Ezekiel 28,it is the King of Tyre that is the subject of the narrative. A paraphrasing and explanation of the section is as follows: Verses 11-19 tell that a lamentation shall be raised over the king of Tyre: the personification of wisdom and beauty. Your covering is studded with the most precious stones as if you were in God's Garden of Eden. Your craftsmanship in wind instruments is as if it were preserved for the day you were born. Like the outspread cherub, so saintly were you, actually walking amidst stones of fire. You were perfect from the day you were born until iniquity set in with you. (*additional note: this affirms that original sin wasn't a concept of Jewish belief either, but being born pure and having abilities to choose between “good and evil” was) Due to your great business dealings you were filled with violence; you have sinned, and thus, cherub, have you perished from amidst the stones of fire. Your pride of heart has corrupted your wisdom and your brightness, and like a fire from within you has it burned you up in full view of kings and all spectators. Whosoever knew you among the nations was shocked; like a wraith were you which is no more forever. ( Read starting with chapter 26 and it's really clear what is talked about here) Like the passage of Isaiah, his story is all about *condemning the notion of men as gods*; the King of Tyre being punished by God for setting himself up as a man/god. Later Christian dogma tries to take portions out of context to imply they refer to the Christian concept of the Devil as a “fallen" angel. Ezekiel has taken the titles and stories the king of Tyre has styled for himself and insulted and debased him for thinking himself a god.
Judaism is strictly monotheistic so there can be no entity that rules the underworld in opposition or contradiction to God or battles God. If an entity can threaten God‘s omnipotence, that would give that entity the attributes of a deity


4. "Both believe that God created the heavens, the earth and everything in it, including man." < That’s about the ONLY thing I see common yet our religion’s doctrines present antithetical concepts of thenature of the Creator and the human relationship to our Creator. A defining radical difference of Judaism to all other ancient religions was that God in the Torah is an incorporeal entity..God is an indivisible ONE, declares that God does not become a man, nor do men become a god.


5." Both believe in the Old Testament". 
 NO. Christianity appropriated the Hebrew Bible and it's characters to insert itself and impose foreign and forbidden beliefs upon it. I already explained that the alterations through key words mistranslated, and the rearrangement of books to remove specific conextual reference/meaning of the Christian Old Testament is sinful and not something Jews use.


"However the differences between the two are the following"
 Did you count how many vast differences he was unaware of that I've already detailed?


1. "They don't both acknowledge Satan/Lucifer as God's adversary. (Christianity does)." < He is only partially correct as noted, Judaism has NO Lucifer, it doesn't appear in our Bible, and HaSatan is an adversary to HUMANS and can only do what God orders or permits. The Christian Bible gives their fallen angel/demon the capacity to battle and thwart the will of an omnipotent God thus giving him attributes of a deity and making Christianity not true monotheism.


2. "They don't believe that Jesus Christ is the Messiah (Christianity does). "
 Finally got one. But he failed to recognize that the new Testament completely redefines the nature and purpose of the Davidic messiah and claims that the prophecies of the Davidic messiah in the Hebrew Bible will be fulfilled at a 'second coming" nowhere prophesied in the Tanakh.  And despite the fact they also claim he had already come back with a resurrection he still never did ONE thing prophesied. I would say this should technically force them to refer to another appearance of Jesus as a hoped for "third try".
 
 In fact when his worship began, instead of bringing peace, brotherhood and justice for all Israel and then the rest of the world, more than a million Jews were murdered and Israel was exiled.  The world today remains in chaos strife and war. That is the antithesis of a post-messianic world.  Missionaries, people worshipping a failed messiah as a god incarnate and the world are the clear and objective physical evidence that God’s prophecies of the Davidic Messiah and Messianic age have not happened.


Jesus fits their doctrine's redefined notion of a messiah as an incarnate god and sacrifice to atone for all sins past present and future and their self-perceived inherent sinful nature..all notions antithetical to Torah. He fits absolutely nothing of the Davidic Messianic prophecy.


3. "I don't think they both believe in the existence of demons (Christianity does)."
 Judaism has traditionally held belief in demons, but humans are more powerful and can master their influence. Judaism appears to refer to some pagan false gods to be demons. This reference to pagan deities as demon like in existence, if they existed at all, is where Christianity even obtained yet other names for their devil.  Beelzebub= the Lord of the Flies of the Phillistines for example, whose influence was believed by their ancient adherents was to bring pestilence to their enemies, became for Christians,another name for their Devil.



4. "Judaism does not believe that the New Testament is the continuation of the Old Testament (Otherwise they would accept Jesus as their Messiah and the Son of God)." 
Finally another one right even though he's using the insulting misnomer about our Bible. Judaism does not accept that God would lie about His nature before the presence of all Israel at Sinai, would not lie about the purpose of our eternal covenant or about the Davidic messianic prophecies in our Tanakh, thus, the replacement theology of the New Testament that demonizes Jews in some very bizarre ways remains irrelevant to our faith. Their doctrine is antithetical to our covenant/Torah.


5. "Judaism does not believe that we become God's children by receiving the Holy Spirit." 
 
 This is correct. All humans are *already* God's children. I found this statement a bit odd since earlier he appeared to recognize that Jews recognized all are children of God. A reading of Genesis would show that we are all God's children whether or not you know it or want to strive to live in brotherhood with all the rest of God's children. A foundational precept of Judaism is that all humans are equal before God.


6." Judaism believes that you must be circumcised to be a part of God's people,"
 
Israel is a people who are obligated by our choice to live a separate role in serving God, humanity and all life.  All humans are God’s whether they know it or not. Circumcision is God’s requirement as an eternal ( for all generations) outward symbol of being dedicated to the eternal covenant between God and Yisrael.
 “where Christianity teaches that it is part of the Old Covenant “< Note, he’s calling what God says is eternal more than a dozen times in the Holy Scriptures, “Old”. Their New Covenant remains irrelevant to the eternal covenant and circumcision is only *mandatory for the Jews* according to the commandment from God in our Torah. NO where in the Jewish Bible does God teach that he is only for one people. God obligates the Jews to be exclusive in worship to God. That's an important difference.


"whereas the New Covenant by God teaches that we are to be baptized, confess our sins to God and repent, and accept Jesus Christ as our Lord and Savior to become a child of God :)" < see they reject God's teaching in Torah that all are already children of God and equal before God and available to connect to and know God directly. That all humans are directly accountable to one another to repent of wrong doing after trying to make amends before we seek pardon from God directly. Repentance in the Torah is directly available.
 explains Torah's concept of repentance. God teaches in the Torah that the righteous of all nations merit blessing. The prophets echo this understanding of Torah. No one *has* to be a Jew to know God or have blessing or atonement.


Christianity takes many terms and words from Judaism but assigns foreign meanings to them. Some of the meanings are even directly forbidden by commandment in the Torah. THIS is the core irreconcilable differences in the two faiths, the nature of God and how humans connect to God and our fellow man! In the Torah we are taught that all humans are equal before God. Judaism, through Torah has always taught that the righteous of all nations are blessed of God and also can know God directly. Because most Christians have no clue as to the history and development of their religion and it’s New Testament and because their view of Judaism is entirely through the lens of their replacement theology, they have no idea that it’s precepts and narratives give a view of our Judaism that is entirely foreign TO it.

Torah never teaches that God is exclusive to the Jews, but Torah demands that the Jews are exclusive to the incorporeal omnipotent and indivisible God of Israel.


The religion of Judaism as we understand the teachings of Torah, is a world-affirming, not world-denying faith. We use the gifts and blessings we have in this world to make it better for ourselves, for our families and for the rest of the world.
Judaim stresses a path called Tikkun Olam or repair of the world. Jews believe that we have an obligation to strive to be a light unto the nations in fulfilling our role to do this.

Tikkun Olam is about "repairing the world" through human actions. Humanity is empowered in the responsibility to change and improve the world. Each person has a hand in working towards the betterment of his or her own existence as well as the lives of future generations.
It is humans, not God, who are given the task to bring the world back to its original state of holiness. God obligates Yisrael to strive to make way for the Davidic messiah and Messianic Age when all humans know each other as children of God, all equal before God. More simply, it is important for Jews to participate in repairing the world by participating in tzedakah (justice and righteousness) and g'milut hasadim (acts of loving kindness). Without our stake in the improvement of our world, injustice and evil will continue to exist. The Davidic Messiah will be ruling a world that lives in this direct connection and understanding of God. No one would need to be taught or convinced the Messianic age had arrived. All will know.


To the Christian who believes that his New covenant of faith replaced the eternal covenant of faith and that Jews are blinded by God to our very purpose and our own Holy Scriptures, this can come off as exceedingly “blind” of them not to be capable of seeing that God’s Torah remains intact, unaltered, despite the exiles of ancient empires, crusade, inquisition, pogrom , Holocaust , Jihad and missionary endeavors, and our world is still without universal knowledge of God as our Father and one another as brethren before God in equal footing.

Believing Jews will never worship a man as God. Jews aren't waiting for anyone like Jesus to "return", we are busy striving to learn and live what we learn about how to fulfill our obligation as a light unto the nations, and have faith that one day, injustice, bigotry and war will be no more when all humans know God and know one another as children of God.

Thursday, May 24, 2012

Christopher Columbus and Jews

I've been sent links to this news item by seven different Jewish friends from around the country this week: http://www.cnn.com/2012/05/20/opinion/garcia-columbus-jewish/index.html
While I always thank all my friends for sharing items of interest to Jews I have great misgivings as a Jew as to how these discoveries are being reported. I feel such a strong gut feeling that this will be used as new fuel for hate propagandizing. I think this will be claimed as evidence of Jews believing we have entitlement to do and say whatever we can for gain to justify abuse of other peoples. Please read on to see why I say this and share if you'd like with anyone else who you think might be find equal cause for concern.

I say this because how Jews react to this news is very important. This history of the atrocities Christopher Columbus perpetrated is likely as little known by many Jews as the possibility he is a Jew. Before Jews begin to embrace Christopher Columbus as some kind of Jewish hero whose mission was really to save the Jews in secret, we cannot ignore or dismiss that his journals and the history of others writings of his life and travels clearly reveal that he treated the indigenous peoples horrifically and was not living the ethics of Judaism in his encounters with them. If he had desire to save Jews as his own people, he did so demonstrating a worldview that came from being assimilated into the sense of entitlement prevalent among the empires of Europe of the day to abuse others and use the profits deriving from torture of others to save Jews at the expense of the lives of innocents. That is clearly not a Jew that Jews want to hold up as any sort of hero. I just now "Googled" a few key phrases and here is just one article that addresses his horrific treatment of a people he noted displayed innocence, beauty and generosity
http://www.huffingtonpost.com/eric-kasum/columbus-day-a-bad-idea_b_742708.html
I hope this is not dismissed because if it is, this will make the Jews who hold him up as a hero (even in ignorance of his atrocities) to be just as lacking in compassion for others and WILL be used as additional "evidence" to support a current common propagandizing lie that the Jews do to the Palestinians like the Europeans did to the Indians. If Columbus is **embraced as a hero among Jews** that will be a massive feather in the cap of the Islamofacist propagandist.

There has already been far too much propaganda being spread by Islamofacists and their supporters to try to equate Jews and the State of Israel with lies that Israel treats Palestinian Arabs the same way the Europeans treated the indigenous inhabitants of the Americas. An online Lakota friend informed me more than a decade ago they have even had people come to their tribal elders at both the Pine Ridge and Rosebud reservations in South Dakota and present lectures seeking their nation's support to speak out against the State of Israel with the lie that Israel was committing genocide to the Palestinians as the European and the U.S. government had long been doing to the Indians. Thankfully, he and others did not fall for this propaganda, but he said many of their younger people did. I was so shocked and at first I just couldn’t even believe anyone would fall for this. I then went to the Native American chat rooms of Yahoo and if any of the people there had seen anything like that. It gave me an even sicker feeling when several Indians of other nations replied that they had also "learned" about what Israel was doing to the Palestinians from people coming to their tribal gatherings.

So based upon this and what I have seen displayed in Yahoo Answers in the past 4 years, I cannot deny or dismiss the fact that they are the targets of propaganda for the purpose of legitimizing the lie that Jews treat Palestinians like the European invaders and the govts of countries in North and South America treats the Indians and feel entitled to do so.

It is interesting to know if Columbus was a Jew if for no other purpose than to set the history straight if the facts support this. It is just as important to make it equally clear and keep straight that his treatment of the indigenous people was not displaying the values, ethics, goals or beliefs of Judaism. He is no hero to the Jewish people. If he was a Jew he was a bad Jew.

Jewish history shows that Jews value getting the history right, no matter what it reveals. From what we show in our own Holy Scriptures, the Tanakh onward we've never shied away from the honest history about our own or calling out the bad Jews for being bad. Lessons are learned from understanding the good, the bad and the ugly...Jews don't need to be embracing him as a *Jewish hero* or a hero of any kind.

He did not embody the ethics of Judaism even if he did leave money to the poor as a Jewish custom or wished to keep some aspects of Jewish heritage and connection. If he was indeed a Jew, he definitely wasn't one of our good guys.

That needs to be in the news, too.

=====================EDIT=====================
I thought the following email I received a short time ago from a young man had enough interesting points to share here. He doesn't have a blogger account to post this himself under comments. He gave me permission to share his email here. This is from my friend "Feivel" as I will identify him by screen name, a 24 year old Orthodox Jewish Israeli American studying to be a Rabbi. He brought up some interesting points especially regarding Tomás de Torquemada (1420–1498), prominent leader of the Spanish Inquisition and the liklihood that Columbus fled as a Jew....then RETURNED to Spain.

Here is what he had to say:
"I have heard before that he was Jewish or a converso but you didn't hear this before the real nature of the man came about. When he was "the hero" no one said he was Jewish now that his legacy is being looked at honestly, he is all of a sudden a converso.

I have seen or read about some of that evidence and dots in his will as a way for his sons to say Kaddish? I doubt that. He left money to a Jewish man. Ok. That does not mean he was Jewish. Two Jews paid for the Armada? Well, ok but Isabella would NEVER have given him the green light if he was Jewish or even remotely suspected of it and if it it so obvious to scholars today then it would have been REALLY obvious to church officials back then who would have imprisoned his family upon seeing the will (which the church would have seen).
I think you are right. It is a way to not bash Columbus's reputation (he doesn't need any help in that category as his actions do that themselves) but a way to bash us.
Torquemada had the queens ear (110%) and if he had even hinted that he thought Columbus was a converso then Columbus would not only have not been given money and a green light but he would have been thrown in prison and maybe executed. They would have searched for and found the will with the "Jewish symbol" on it. That would have been enough.
I just don't put much stock in the fact that he was Jewish but I will admit that Simon Weisenthal's assertion that he was Jewish.....makes me not totally discount it...
I have the utmost respect for Weisenthal and his research so I keep an open mind. Clearly there were thousands of people who chose Catholicism over death or expulsion and a guy like Torquemada going against a guy like Columbus, expulsion would not have been an option I fear. So how can he keep it sooo secret in his own time but in our time its "obvious". If he was going to find a new homeland, then why sail back to Spain where he knew persecution might still await him. If he was found to be Jewish after the expulsion, hero or not, he would have been executed (probably quietly). Whatever we do, unless my time frame is off, we MUST put Torquemada in the picture and he was so evil and so vicious that he would not have allowed Columbus to live. Historical records have it that Torquemada could actually enter the king and queen's chambers without knocking and it is recorded that he stormed in one day and berated them when they contemplated allowing the Jews to remain in Spain or at least a few Jews. They listened to him and did as he "commanded". An odd position for a "simple priest" and oddly, of course, he himself was by Jewish law, Jewish. His maternal grandmother was a converso.
So I think you are 110% correct. To "accurse" Columbus of being Jewish or a Marrano is really going to be used as another tool in the arsenal of the anti-Semite.

My guess is that his being Jewish would have been further removed than Torquemada's heritage would have been and your blog is also right in that we do need to understand history accurately. IF he was a converso or a marrano (which seems to be the actual theory) then I would be interested in how he pulled off staying hidden and not in Torquemada's crosshairs.

IF he was a converso then he was a heretic. If he was a marrano then....well, that's a little more fuzzy but certainly he would have outwardly indicated belief in the trinity which is something most of us would die before we did (or at least I think I would but having never been faced with that dilemma who knows). I cannot imagine worshipping a false deity. We are commanded to preserve life at all cost but obviously there are exceptions and that is the major one. So claiming him as "one of our own" is not something I would do with any relish and would have to say if he was then he was an apostate and therefore, we can distance ourselves from him.

I will say that I think the motivation most people have in researching him is scholarly (as opposed to the "hitler was Jewish" thing that is going on now) but I think their conclusions are coming too quick and based on too little evidence."



ANOTHER EDIT:

For those who have doubts as to the evidence to show that Christopher Columbus was a brutal slave trader and responsible for the enslavement, torture and genocide of at least three million people he wrote were innocents, read this essay and note it's references.
http://www.scribd.com/doc/15026955/Thief-Slave-Trader-Murderer-Christopher-Columbus-and-Caribbean-Population-Decline
==============================================
Other references of his own words
http://www.fordham.edu/halsall/source/columbus1.asp
http://www.swarthmore.edu/SocSci/bdorsey1/41docs/01-col.html
http://www.ushistory.org/documents/columbus.htm
http://earlyamericas.wordpress.com/anthology/columbus-letter-from-the-fourth-voyage/

Strange Cruelties: The Spanish Slaughter The Natives, West Indies, c. 1513 Bartolome de las Casas
details the Spanish treatment of the native peoples

Wednesday, January 18, 2012

Refuting Fallacious Debate and History Revisionism

I can't link to IT from here until the question closes, but If you're reading this here now, it is likely you arrived via my "EDIT" link asking you to read my response to the playground taunts that I have nothing I could say to refute them.

This post is made to address ad hominem, and other fallacious debate techniques used to try to circumvent objective evidence that I gave in an answer to a baiting question on an online question and answer forum.

I realize I might just be giving a bigot the jollies with this by a page devoted to address one notorious Jew hating disrupter. However, he is one who joins others that long ago hijacked a section of the internet to promote war mongering and hate propagandizing. My values do not permit me to remain silent to that. I also hope this will help at least a few people understand a complex situation a little better once they can clearly see common methods of propagandizing and abuse being employed by those who want to hijack efforts to peace in the Middle East and in the World at large.

While I am addressing the words of only one known Jew hater’s comments, note the techniques he uses aren’t unique to him and this isn’t the only topic his methods of propagandizing are used to support. He makes false allegations, twists what someone else said then demands his perversion be justified by the person falsely accused, project bigoted ideation and canards, make unsubstantiated claims and then demand proof for everything the other person said while either providing no evidence to substantiate his claims or giving references that if actually read, discredit his own claim. He is certainly not going to like this post today. Those methods are becoming increasingly commonplace online. Another thing that such people depend upon is to only appeal to others with a similar irrational bias. These methods always fail to convince objective thinkers. His methods are not focused on that sort of person, anyway. They focus on people who are ignorant on a topic and do not have the time or inclination to investigate for themselves.
They may or may not refer to a claimed source, to support some of their claims, but upon investigation, the objective reader discovers that *is* their Achilles' Heel. The easiest way to discover how duplicitous they are is to go to their claimed sources and read what is actually written in context. This is another reason why you might see the most detailed answers I give on controversial issues such as bigotry to Jews and the efforts to eliminate Israel, and *especially* if they are well referenced with scholarly sources, with the most thumbs down. They want to hide the fact that their own words led to the discovery of just how egregious they lie.

I have not even begun to address this particular question and one user’s attacks upon my answer yet. In addition, since I first wrote down an address to all his attacks and asked people to email me for them at the q..He added another attempt to deflect with escalated deceptiveness by perverting another user’s answer, too.

With that particular user, the correct answers that he’s most likely to try to discredit by method I call..baffle with bullshit..are either answers that max out the space allotted or are very long. He chooses those specifically because he knows that the person he is attacking must remove some of the information that he did not want seen in the first place to address his false charges. It is a form of moving the goalpost. Then he will give a list of nonsensical misrepresentations or false claims as charges against the correct answer and claim the person *cannot* refute them. It is only SPACE that doesn't permit refutation in those instances as he certainly knows.

To the answer that called me out..I copy paste (his misspellings and all) and then address them… I don’t claim to be a good writer myself, so excuse my grammar boo boos. His comments are in quotes followed by my response after a <
You may note that I’ve written most of this as if addressing HIM since I first typed most of this rather stream of consciousness when he first made the charges in case he actually writes to me. I won’t hold my breath waiting because I know he knows I can refute lies with evidence.
I also emailed much of this to the asker, unsolicited. Prior to my posting this and a link at the q, only two readers wrote to me to see what I had to say to his charges. I emailed them draft versions of this. The response was as expected. :)

Now to eviscerate the fallacious debate techniques that were there to try to discredit my answer:
“Does that mean there is no sch thing as Metis? Cajuns? Celts?" < Strawman…easily knocked over.. The people who comprise “Palestinian” identity in history are many different ethnicities, nations and peoples. If he wants to talk about who was historically called Palestinian, he’s going to have to admit that it didn’t refer to Arab Muslims in any exclusive manner and in almost all instances of historical reference, it was speaking exclusively of the indigenous Jews. He’s even given historical evidence throughout his claimed refutation that the Jews are the indigenous people referred to as Palestinian, as I wrote, and as the Mark Twain reference HE gave a little further on to support that mark Twain referred to the Palestinians…he omits that Mark Twain was talking about Jews when he said it! . Also a little farther on, the Jew hater’s comments also gave evidence to support continual Jewish presence by referencing the “Palestinian Talmud. “ A term used in English that was coined as a later reference for the texts titled “תַּלְמוּד יְרוּשָׁלְמִי‎, Talmud Yerushalmi, often Yerushalmi for short. HIS claim is to insinuate that “Palestinian Talmud” is the title, when that certainly isn’t the case. Objective evidence proves that beyond doubt.
In addition, the Palestinian Orchestra was a completely Jewish orchestra that existed prior to the formation of the State of Israel. I could keep going on and on, but why? Palestinian wasn’t the identity of any ONE people, although the world at large always equated it with Jew..and that’s another reason why for centuries, the non-Jews who were also living in the region didn’t like it.
"If they really wanted peace they would give up their farms and homes and leave" (paraphrasing) What kind of logic is that? So if Arabs occupy Israel, when did this happen? < He certainly is not paraphrasing me or any answer I could find there. He has pulled that one completely out of his tuches. He’s right, that’s not logical and it is only his illogical claim. Next..he says, “if Arabs occupy Israel”. Arab refers to an ethnicity now, and while Arabs most certainly “occupied“ and conquered many lands in the Middle East, this ethnicity and language has now permeated the region for a long time among many different peoples. There are more than a million and a half Arab Jews in Israel whose families were expelled from Arab lands and were taken in as citizens, not kept as political pawns and permanent refugees.
“Can you point to a period in time when the entire population was removed and Arab introduced?” < Can YOU point to anyone’s claim that the entire population was removed? Your desperation to obfuscate is glaring like a spotlight here. http://www.imninalu.net/myths-Arabs.htm No one said the entire population was removed…another straw man and other fallacies …this link will help the uninformed learn of the ancient history and expansion of the Arab empire. Different peoples living in the ancient Levant have come and gone and largely due to the conquest of various empires and either extermination, expulsion or assimilation. This doesn't obfuscate that the homeland of the Jews is Israel or remove the archaeological evidence and continual Jewish presence however meager at times, despite ALL efforts to remove Jews completely.

“Why is the Cohanim genetic marker MORE prevalent in Palestinians then any Jewish group?”< “Palestinians” as I’ve shown, historically WERE Jews, Cohenim genetic markers are not found in any non-Jewish group more than in any Jewish group. Many Jews that it is found in are Palestinian..you’re using fallacious debate technique. I don’t care to pull out all the genetic studies, but will note that your claim even notes that there is ancient genetic evidence of the Cohenim..tHe Jewish people present in the region. Thanks.
“For your claim to be correct you must have an answer to these.@mama pajama Mark Twain's book "Innocents Abroad" was written in the nineteenth century- it refers to Palestinians- the indigenous inhabitants.” < Yes, it most certainly does, and thanks you for noting that he recognized the Jews as the indigenous peoples. Many sites reference his writing about the Holy Land and how few people inhabited it http://www.jewishvirtuallibrary.org/jsource/History/Arabs_in_Palestine.html
He mentions some places as entirely devoid of people, which some modern Palestinians claim their families had large communities and had owned at the time, too. So, who is right Mark Twain or the claims of the “refugees”?
"Seven Pillars of Wisdom" by TE Lawrence speaks of the Palestinians. < Of course, a British citizen would use the British term to refer to all inhabitants of British Mandate Palestine. Doesn't TE "Lawrence of Arabia" also refer to some of the individual peoples by their nation names?
“Khayr al-Din al-Ramli was a Muslim scholar who lived in Ramla in the seventeenth century; he wrote of "Palestine" and "Palestinians". < NOT QUITE.. This cleric famous for his fatwas briefly referenced the Roman province of Palaestina Prima, or as it was known in the early Islamic period, Jund Filastin, one of several sub-provinces of the Unmayad and Abbasid Caliphate province of Syria , organized soon after the Muslim conquest of Syria in the seventh century. I searched Islamic sites for several hours and could find no quote claiming he called himself Palestinian in this writing. That was one of your claims attacking the OTHER person’s answer.

Misleading using Muslim references is just as disrespectful to Islam as your lies about Jews.

“ In fact could you provide an example of a Palestinian humiliated because the British called them "Palestinian"? in fact I just bet you won't.” < The claim I made was that they continually charged that the term was created to humiliate them. They did this for a very long time. Here is only one of the quotes that aren’t difficult to find at all if you bother to look. Here you go..a complaint to the British rejecting the very term Palestine.
"There is no such country as Palestine. 'Palestine' is a term the Zionists invented. There is no Palestine in the Bible. Our country was for centuries part of Syria. 'Palestine' is alien to us. It is the Zionists who introduced it". - Auni Bey Abdul-Hadi, Syrian Arab leader to British Peel Commission, 1937
I’ve got more..and some even delivered at the UN..so..it is very clear that you lost your bet.
What did I “win”? I am not clear what you wagered. I won’t hold my breath waiting for you to admit it.

“Even being referred to a "Palestinian" was so humiliating, then why would a JEWISH writer (Philo) refer to the "Jews of Palestine" in FORTY CE (BEFORE the fall of Jerusalem and Bar Kokhba revolt under Hadrian.” < Philo was a Hellenized (Greek) Jew. When you quote that he said “Jews of Palestine” he notes that Jews were OF the region! You’ve shot your own lie in the foot. Therefore, you admit that Jews were of the larger region the Greeks called Palestine. There goes the lie that Jews are foreign to the region.
Then you twist both my words and history. Philo didn’t live during the British Mandate and wasn’t issued the ID card that the different Arab nations complained was so humiliating and humiliating because they didn't want to be mistaken for the Jews who had historically been referred to for so long as Palestinian, some of them ( as I gave evidence already) falsely even claimed Jews created the term!
The term 'Palestine' is derived from the Philistines. In the fifth century BCE the Greek historian Herodotus used the term Palaistine Syria (= Philistine Syria) to refer to the whole region between Phoenicia and the Lebanon mountains in the north and Egypt in the south. (While the exact meaning intended by Herodotus is debated, later *Greek* writers certainly used 'Philistine Syria' in this very broad sense.) The Greeks felt a great kinship to their ancient kin, the Philistines. Greece was the HOMELAND of the Philistines and they even shared the same religious practices as archaeological evidence exists to support!
Palestine wasn’t the name of a country or an indigenous people to the region, it was the name referred to a region by Greek and Roman conquerors.
Until the early part of the twentieth century, the word Palestinian simply referred to the inhabitants of the region, whether they were Arab, Muslim, Jew, Samaritan, Christian or Druze. Moreover, even they did not use the term widely. Only since 1948 has the term come increasingly into use to refer to all the non-Jewish inhabitants.
Just as the modern term “ARAB WORLD” was only coined in the 20th century by the 21 members of the “ARAB LEAGUE” to designate their member countries and to promote a political goal and strategy for the conquest of a form of empire, so too, was the term “Palaistine Syria” applied to a REGION that comprised many countries/kingdoms/ and peoples who all had their OWN names for their own lands and countries.
 
“Why would they refer to the "PALESTINIAN" Talmudh if it were so insulting? A good refutation to Thomas McCall's claim can be found here http://www.churchhistory101.com/century1-palestine.php
< I can’t also help but notice that you ignored the objective physical evidence of the Arch of Titus in Rome and the coins they designated as capturing JUDEA. The massive amounts of objective archaeological evidence in museums in Israel and around the world stand as testimony revealing who is “manufacturing” history to try to HIDE the evidence of history. Actually if you read that link, the claim that Thomas McCall is wrong isn’t refuted at all there. They simply refer to the earlier use of “Palaistine Syria “by the *Greeks* who refer to their term of conquest. The term didn’t refer to native peoples, but was a name given to the region by conquerors. This is clearly noted at his OWN website reference if you read. He also ignores that no archaeological evidence exists to support that people IN the region used the term at that time, but that other names WERE used in archaeological evidence.

Thankfully, the objective reader sees these things.

“But I know none of this means anything to "Mama pajama" who will just ignore the facts and refuse to acknowledge or refute.” < Easy taunt to make when my Answer already maxed out the space permitted. It is the FACTS that you are so obviously desperate to obfuscate. Did you forget that that not everyone is desperate to project hate, or too lazy to look for themselves?
“My purpose is to show the facts and pose this question "If the Zionist position is so strong, why must they manufacture history to belittle an entire people?" < This is perhaps the most topsy turvy claim made…and one that anyone reading can now see crystal clear that your accusations and question are obviously the fallacies...as the objective physical evidence has proven once AGAIN. The only people who are being “belittled” under that question are your unfounded, irrational charges and insults to the Jews, and by those who are in utter denial of overwhelming objective physical evidence. It is those who wish to negate the existence of another people and their entire history who “manufacture” a collective Arab identity as “Palestinian” existing thousands of years for peoples who rejected such a thing until the Arab nationalistic movement of the 1960s. You must assume that all readers will be too lazy to read references.
Next time you think that by posing so many fallacious claims as taunting charges and then assert because they weren’t addressed in the q, they .prove the person you’ve trolled can’t address them..Don‘t forget that there will always be at least a FEW people who are interested in actually discovering the truth. Truth will out.
That’s *always* going to be your Achilles’ Heel…and honest answers always your enemy. Seek help for your obsessive desire to project the behaviors you openly display without hint of conscience, onto others. Professionals can help if you seek it.
Here is much more of the evidence you claimed I couldn’t “produce”
http://www.imninalu.net/myths-Arabs.htm
See my references here:
http://uk.answers.yahoo.com/question/index?qid=20110521103725AA1LFrV
http://answers.yahoo.com/question/index?qid=20100303171017AADaIdW
Note that in Roman usage the name Judea applied to the whole country, to all of Israel. In fact, the Province of Judea and the earlier Kingdom of Judea ruled by Herod, a client king of Rome, included Samaria, Galilee, the Golan Heights, and the east bank of the Jordan River. Sometimes, as in several verses of the Christian New Testament, Judea is used in a narrow sense together with Samaria as separate regions. Nevertheless, this was a reflection of Jewish usage, not Roman. Jews sometimes used Judea to translate Judah [Yehudah], the ancient southern kingdom of the Israelites after the split of the monarchy.
 
PalestineThis place name, connected with the Philistine population, is first found in the classical [Greek] sources in Herodotos [5th century BCE]. It was introduced as the official name for the region by the Romans after the events of 132-5 [CE], deliberately counterposing it to the official name Iudaea, traditionally used up to that time, in the setting of a series of repressive actions. As such it is often rejected in Jewish circles who prefer "Land of Israel." Yet another ACTUAL Historian in addition to Thomas McCall, Elsa Laurenzi < also not Jewish btw
The BCE sources were affirmation of the Hellenist connection to the origin of the Philistines…that Aegean seafaring people who occupied five coastal city-states and vanished as a people, long before Christianity began.
The Province of Judea and the earlier Kingdom of Judea ruled by Herod, a client king of Rome, included Samaria, Galilee, the Golan Heights, and the east bank of the Jordan River. Sometimes, as in several verses of the Christian New Testament, Judea is used in a narrow sense together with Samaria as separate regions. But this was a reflection of Jewish usage, not Roman. Jews sometimes used Judea to translate Judah [Yehudah], the ancient southern kingdom of the Israelites after the split of the monarchy.
Here is more to refute the lies with objective evidence:
http://www.palestinefacts.org/pf_early_palestine_name_origin.php
I have *much* more, but I think I have already made the points.
And because this is already so long, for those of you who want to see those medieval and antique maps he claims doesn’t exist….use the search terms “antique maps of the holy land”, map of Judea and Samaria in the middle ages, “antique map of Judea” “antique map of Samaria”. There are even links where you can purchase maps from the 15th -19th centuries clearly showing those terms he said didn’t exist on maps…but being so old they are a bit pricey..$450 and up. I don’t link them because I’m not trying to sell what they offer…I just told you how you can go find for yourself with a few clicks of a mouse, what he said doesn’t exist.
For him to rationalize his hate, I am sure none of the overwhelming mountains of objective evidence exists.
I pity such overwhelming hate that blinds people to evidence.
Last admonition to the Jew hater: Seek help for your hate. You may then desire to seek peace.
Shalom y’all.

Friday, October 28, 2011

Best of Answers



I've answered many hundreds of questions about Jewish identity with variations of an essay that derived from a lesson plan I'd used long ago with teens. Some of them had many more outside references listed than did others. At some, I used Jewish history sites; others showed references to secular historical evidence, international linguistic scholarly references, and to web sites of different respected Rabbis. At others I detailed the history of the false notion of Jews as a race and used award winning Biology web references.
The photo there is of one of my answers to the question of Jewish identity that someone nominated to Yahoo and Yahoo Answers chose to feature as a Best of Answers. While all the information in it is correct and contains much of the information I provide elsewhere, if *I* were going to choose one of the thousands of times I've answered this question asked on a daily basis, I would have chosen one of the better referenced answers I'd posted many times.

Here is a link to the above question: http://uk.answers.yahoo.com/question/index?qid=20101027162339AAi9CII
Here is a link to another of the many hundreds of times I have answered this question:
http://answers.yahoo.com/question/index;_ylt=AgEGzRemtJg1A2CbyhoQKfPty6IX;_ylv=3?qid=20111020175125AAigOTe
I might be back later with more.

Tuesday, March 9, 2010

Dispelling a Longstanding Bloody Lie


I've often found that because New Testament followers have a perspective of Judaism that is foreign to and contradicts what Jews believe and entirely from their doctrine rather than from the laws of Judaism, I often see misrepresentations of Judaism in telling others *about* Judaism. The often made claim that a “blood“ sacrifice for sin was the "only means of atonement for Jews"/the covenant of Torah, is something that is not found IN the Torah and in fact violates and negates what God shows from Genesis throughout the entire Hebrew Bible.

To dispel this false statement about Judaism to such a person who was raised to believe that "blood" had to be shed for "atonement" in Judaism, I find that contrasting of the concepts found in each religion best helps them understand. I’ll use a modern example of how Jews are presented with their concept of atonement and forgiveness and then show the Jewish religion’s laws from the eternal covenant of Torah.

The following scenario was long ago given to me on a Hebrew Christian missionary pamphlet (dishonestly calling itself Messianic “Judaism“) with the tag-line "This is you.” or something like that. I can’t seem to find it now to quote it verbatim, but I’m hopeful some reader out there may also have a copy to forward to me so I can post a copy of it online and illustrate with objective evidence how completely opposite to Jewish belief it‘s statements about Judaism really are. I know I can't be the only person who had that flyer handed out to them.

First of all, the Jewish people are forbidden to worship anything on earth or in heaven before or in lieu of God. The Torah declares that God is not and does not become a man (this was to separate Jews from this common and widespread belief in the ancient Levant in godmen and men/rulers becoming Divine) Believing Jews have always trusted that God did not lie to us in these statements.

The gist of the missionary pamphlet was to try to show that one is following Torah to consider a Jew as a sacrifice to atone for sins! It was supposed to show the enormous capacity of mercy from Jesus (Yahsuah) that is available to all humans who have the “blot” of “original sin” and all the accumulated sins that humans have engaged in action, past, present and *future* if one simply relies on the sacrifice of Jesus to “pay” the “price” for them. I recall that it had a story line to it:

It instructed you to pretend that you are an inmate on death row for being a murderer and a rapist. You were tried and are guilty, that is not in dispute. The day before you are to be executed, a stranger offers to take your place and receive the lethal injection and die in your place instead. The court accepts this and the sentence is carried out on the stranger who dies in your place. You are now a free man.
It went on …but I’m going to stop here
What struck me right at that point was how strongly this differs from the focus of mercy through justice and accountability taught throughout the entire Tanakh and especially in the eternal Torah (law/teaching) of Judaism. How does that pamphlet's scenario in any way resemble justice?
Torah demands that “Justice, justice, shall you pursue”.
Letting someone else die in place of the guilty does not change the guilt of the guilty, nor serve justice in any sense of the definition of the word. There is no mention of any attempt on the part of the guilty to try to make amends or ameliorate any resulting damage or pain caused by their sin, no mention of regret or repentance on the part of the sinner or a desire to refrain from the same sin again. Not one mention of individual accountability or outward demonstration of an effort toward atonement by the sinner is shown, only abdication of personal responsibility...However, later, the pamphlet referred to an obligation to be eternally grateful for the death of that innocent person and their suffering for what you did.
Moses once offered himself to do that for the covenant nation, Israel, and God declared outright that was not permissible, that every person is directly accountable to God for his/her own sins. Jews believe God didn’t lie to Moses about this, or to the covenant nation, Israel with regards to the precepts of mercy and justice.
Repentance and acts of restitution are prerequisites to the act of any sacrifice, either animal or non animal sacrifice in the Torah.

So how is it so widely accepted that Jesus’ supposed sacrifice *paid* for anything at all? There is no justice in an innocent person being punished and dying in place of a guilty one, so why would God accept this gesture and agree to redeem all souls who recognize the sacrifice, unless God is unjust?

Living in a society/civilization that believes in justice, I'm sure all of you would have a problem letting a death row inmate go just because a stranger was executed for him. Again, I ask how does this fit with God's commandment to pursue justice?

So the New Testament concept of god in that scenario doesn't appear to care about justice or demonstration of acts of sincere repentance or individual and personal accountability and instead focuses on blood sacrifice as mere *appeasement* versus the Tanakh's Scriptural contextual concept of ATONEMENT..meaning to be at one with the Creator in striving to honor the gift of life. Atonement is more compelling to me than appeasement.

Animal sacrifice (zevachim) was never the exclusive means to atonement.  A sin sacrifice, called a Korban Chatas, was only required for accidental transgressions of severe sins. If someone was unsure if they had transgressed a sin for which they would be required to bring  a sin sacrifice they brought a sacrifice called a Korban  Asham Taluy.  The Chatas ( sin ) offering was not for intentional or malicious sins.   Some sin offerings could not be eaten, but for the most part, for the average person's personal sin, the chatat was eaten by the Kohenim, the Temple priests.
The animal offerings differed as to who was giving them, for a king or the High Priest, the Kohen Gadol  the requirement is the sacrifice of unblemished bull. A normal person had to bring a female lamb, but if they were too poor to provide that, they were asked to bring two birds (the exact species is subject to debate) and a really poor person brought flour, oil and frankincense.

There is no blood in flour, oil and frankincense. Thus, animal sacrifice was shown as NOT mandatory for atonement. In addition, No sacrifice for sin was considered acceptable unless you had done the necessary steps of teshuvah beforehand. Teshuvah refers to repentance of the wrongful deed, amends for anything you could rectify and a return to righteousness, eschewing the wrongful deed. The important thing was the repentance you did prior to this offering and the *acts* of showing you had done what was necessary before you asked God to forgive you. The fact that even amid the instructions on the specifics of animal sacrifice it shows that flour, oil and frankincense could be brought INSTEAD..reveals that what was important was that you were offering something meaningful as a sign you had done your part before you sought God to accept your offering.

According to Torah, there is a three-step formula for "repentance" (teshuva = returning to G-d by returning to the proper path). Quoting from Mishneh Torah by the Rambam (Maimonides):
"And what is repentance? It is when the sinner abandons his sin, removing it from his thoughts [i.e. he will from now on push out from his mind any idea to do or to imagine doing this sin], and is completely resolved not to do it again.
Consequently, he [verbally] regrets what has happened in the past [i.e. what he thought, said or did] and [verbally] accepts G-d, the Knower of secrets, as his witness that he will never return to such a sin again.
And he needs to confess verbally and state the resolutions that he made in his heart."

***The centrality of the animal sacrifices ceased, not with the second destruction of the Temple by the Romans, but rather with the first destruction of the Temple by the Babylonians. Please remember that the vast majority of Jews never returned to the Promised Land under Cyrus of Persia. They remained in Babylonia. By the time Jesus was born, eighty percent of the world's Jewish community lived outside of the Promised Land, and could not have cared less about the cessation of the animal sacrifices. When the Temple was reestablished, the Jews of Babylonia made an annual financial gift for the maintenance of the Temple, and the land, but never worried that God was not going to forgive them their sins without a blood sacrifice, just as Diaspora Jews do today. And the reason why they had no such fear, was that the Bible makes it explicitly clear that no blood sacrifice is necessary for the forgiveness of sins, or that the exclusive means for the God-man relationship was through the animal sacrifices.***
The important thing was and remains “teshuvah” This is represented using two concepts, nicham (to feel regret or sorrow) and shuv (to return)
`When a man or woman wrongs another in any way and so is unfaithful to the Eternal, that person is guilty and must confess the sin he has committed. He must make full restitution for his wrong, add one fifth to it and give it all to the person he has wronged. [Numbers 5:6-7]
30:8 You will repent and obey God, keeping all His commandments, as I prescribe them to you today.
Ve'atah tashuv veshamata bekol Adonay ve'asita et-kol-mitsvotav asher anochi metsavecha hayom.
Deuteronomy 30:8
note the Hebrew word tashuv there

For the person who has sinned to acknowledge the wrongdoing is the first step, then one must regret the wrongdoing and do your best to make amends, lastly, is to turn away from doing the wrong and not do it again.

***For intentional sins to be atoned for, there had to be repentance and restitution and often punishment because the sins were committed on purpose!
A thief must certainly make restitution, but if he has nothing, he must be sold to pay for his theft... If a man grazes his livestock in a field or vineyard and lets them stray and they graze in another man's field, he must make restitution from the best of his own field or vineyard... If a fire breaks out and spreads into thorn bushes so that it burns shocks of grain or standing grain or the whole field, the one who started the fire must make restitution... But if the animal was stolen from the neighbor, he must make restitution to the owner... If a man borrows an animal from his neighbor and it is injured or dies while the owner is not present, he must make restitution. [Exodus 22:3, 5, 6, 12, and 14]

Whoever kills an animal must make restitution, but whoever kills a man must be put to death. [Leviticus 24:21] ***

It is hard not to go and refer to the many places throughout the Torah and the rest of the Tanakh that show that the commandments of Torah obligate those who follow it to be accountable to both our fellow humans and to God for our behaviors to all living beings.
The religion of Judaism through the precepts of the Torah is a path that guides humans to individual and collective accountability for our behaviors and to promote justice and mercy and restoring the world to a righteous state. “Justice, justice shall you pursue”.

Torah outlined the steps of repentance and return whether or not the sin ( violation of God's commandment) was unintentional, or intentional. So, in order to fully understand the Jewish Bible’s ( Tanakh’s ) concepts of sacrifice in relation to atonement, you need to study much more than the laws regarding just the *rituals* surrounding the sacrifice. An out of context passage that refers to the prohibition of *consuming* blood, to claim that blood must be shed and justify a human sacrifice for appeasement..remains antithetical to the Torah’s commandments, nor does it fit with what Jews have ever believed or practiced.
There can be no real justice without mercy and no real mercy without justice..but then that leads us into a whole new discussion :)
The Tanakh shows that Jews and Gentiles came to both First and Second Temples to pray and seek atonement. Blessing, repentance and atonement have and shall forever remain equally available to all human beings and does not limit this to membership in one particular group of people. God is not exclusive to the Jewish people, but demands that Jews remain exclusive to God. There is a difference.



***http://whatjewsbelieve.org/ portions asterisked with this copied from that site. Permission from my friend Rabbi Stuart Federow to use his site to help educate as long as I always credit him with his words.
Lastly.. a reminder even though I omitted the many narratives that clearly show that human sacrifice is condemned in the harshest terms throughout the Tanakh and it has no place within Judaism, I only referred to the scenario and the NT doctrine to contrast their concept of sacrifice for sin with that of the Torah's and of Judaism.

Wednesday, December 23, 2009

Where does this sense of Entitlement to negate the right of Jews to Jewish law lead next?

After reading a few recent answers on a popular online q and a forum this week, I’ve a few questions of my own. I will write about them here because these are the kind of questions that I know from experience would have Jew haters swarming them with reports to hide them and would see all correct Jewish answers from all over the world with massive numbers of thumbs downs for that same purpose. It has been so disturbing to see that Answers forum being rendered ineffective for people to obtain accurate information about Judaism and to see it being used daily (with apparently the q and a forum condoning much of it) used as a platform to propagandize hatred to Jews by some willful misinformation (blatant lies)

The following things run through my mind, and especially after reading answers from a few who claimed to be actual Christian clergy. I hope very much that they also lied about that. I know they lied egregiously about Judaism and history.

I often wonder how many Christians believe that they have entitlement to use their New Testament to redefine the laws of all other people? Is it considered ethical in Christianity to disrespect the laws of another religion and claim that the other people do not have a right to their own laws?
Do Christians believe that the world's Jewish people do not have a right to Jewish law that Jews have always and still believe is eternal? Do Christians believe that if Jews state that worship of anything other than God violates it we are "persecuting" those who hold to those other beliefs?

Then tell me why statements such as the following remain unchallenged or uncorrected by so MANY other Christians?

"So to answer your question, yes, of course Messianic Jews believe in Christ, and are therefore part of Christendom---but that in no way negates nor abrogates the fact that those who were a part of the house of Israel (I.E. were Jews) continue to be a part of the house of Israel after coming to faith in Jesus Christ. Today, Messianic Jews (as well as other Jews who believe in Jesus) are simply standing their ground and refusing to allow their detractors to define who they are FOR them---they are refusing to allow themselves to be disenfranchised and run out of the Jewish community---and more power to them for doing so!"
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------

It isn’t up to Jews to determine who or what defines a Christian. It isn’t up to Jews to define the laws of other religions or other peoples. However, I often see Christians claiming with authoritative speech that they support people who wish to negate or redefine Jewish law in opposition to it.
First of all, what determines identity as the "house of Israel" the Jewish people, is Jewish law.
If or when a Jew adopts a belief in another entity other than the incorporeal, indivisible singular God/Creator of the Torah, according to unalterable Jewish law recognized by every movement of Judaism across the world and for more than 3500 years, that renders that Jew as apostate and estranged from membership in the covenant nation people Israel (the Jewish people) unless they repent and return.

That paragraph up there I quoted reflects what Jews the world over are experiencing from some evangelical Christians who demand and insist that Jews accept as Judaism, aspects of dogma that God directly prohibits FOR the Jewish people. When Jews say this we aren’t running anyone out of the community. A Jew who has chosen to worship Jesus left Judaism of their own free will. Judaism has never permitted worship of anything other than God and never will. People can freely join or leave Klal Yisrael (the community of Israel)To add insult, as that paragraph indicates, they're telling others that Jews are hateful to apostates because we refuse to permit forms of worship that are forbidden by unalterable, eternal law from the Holy Scriptures of Judaism, the Torah. Not to mention that the apostates among them worldwide number about fifty thousand out of the approximately 400,000 to 500,000 Gentiles call themselves “messianic Jews”. It is only because of massive media and evangelical campaigns that such a small group has so much attention and because of their outspoken antisemitic claims while claiming to be the “real” Israel and “real” Jews.

Why is this unchallenged by Christians when statements like this are said daily and now taught with evangelical campaigns on television and at churches? Don't Christians also follow the commandment,"You shall not bear false witness"?
Why are Christians falling for this new form of antisemitism from people who claim to love Jews while they simultaneously demonize Jews for simply speaking to the truth of what Judaism has always been about?

I quoted a small portion of a much longer answer that was really so over the top with lies about Judaism I think I’ll share it here to show just how desperate and how intense the hatred in this individual must be. If someone spends a great amount of time and effort to fabricate some really absurd lies about another, you know they’re not doing it out of love.

NOTE: I will comment at the < mark from time to time below: * Now, read on to show some real “Christian love” for Jews from that same individual: “This issue gets confounded by a few false premises that are vocally promoted by some Jews today. The first is the silly notion that being Jewish is merely a matter of religious belief. This idea is a ludocrous farce because the original Jews were the physical descendents of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob. While the scriptures plainly teach that God's covenant was established with Abraham and "in Isaac shall thy seed be called", and while it used to be universally recognized that Jacob (Israel) had twelve sons, whose descendents were the ancestors of the Jewish people, we're being told today that any reference to Jewish peoplehood constitutes adhering to "Nazi propaganda" and saying that Jews are a "race".” < What a way to try to pervert what Torah says and Jews have explained. NO, Jews say we are a *people*, and those of Abraham’s “seed” who passed along the covenant were only those who accepted the covenant. Not all his descendents according to the Torah were the Jewish people. Only his descendents through Sarah. It is a non-Jewish and Nazi propaganda notion of Jewish identity being based on "blood" or "race" rather than determined by law. This particular person has had this explained in detail previously, too. Not all Jews follow Judaism or are all Jews “good Jews” but if they follow another religion or god they’re definitely no longer being Jewish, and more importantly, they have estranged themselves by their own free will according to God's commandments in the Torah.

“Obviously, there is no Jewish race, but there IS such a thing as Jewish peoplehood. Others can JOIN them (I.E. convert and become Jews), but in doing so, they are becoming an entire part of the Jewish people, not just adopting a new religion.” < They key word there where he self-contradicts is *not just adopting a new religion* he actually admits despite himself they must adopt the religion to convert. To JOIN they MUST adopt the “new religion” and that’s been a part of the process of BECOMING a member of the Jewish people since the time of Abraham. You can't convert to Judaism if you believe in other deities. You can't convert to Judaism if you don't make affirmation of faith in God to the exclusion of anything else and the convert affirms to uphold Torah.

“Besides, the entire line of thinking that being a Jew is merely a matter of religious belief is a nonsensical yarn from git-go. Even FULL-BLOWN ATHEISTS can be considered Jews (so much for it just being a matter of religious belief)! “ < Jewish identity is based on Jewish law. Jews don’t say that it is “merely a matter of religious belief” to be considered a member of the Jewish people. We say Jewish identity is based on Jewish law that God gave us. JUDAISM..the religion, IS a belief and the laws DEFINE that belief and the membership criteria of who and what is permissible for the Jewish people. An Atheist can’t CONVERT to BECOME a Jew since affirmation in the faith of Judaism is required to convert *just* as this preacher even admitted a couple of sentences earlier. His lack of consistency rears its head again.

 “There is even one major, recognzied, so-called branch of Judaism that won't even affirm for sure that there is a God in Heaven--and they focus almost ENTIRELY on Jewish peoplehood! There are totally secular Jews, and Jews whose defiance of the Torah is absolutlely shocking." <  He is histrionic in overstating the numbers and significance and calls a controversial small group of "Humanistic" Jews a "major branch" of Judaism. Why such deception?  Their focus is upon living the ethical precepts of Torah.  That is not nearly as defiant of Torah as worshipping a man as God incarnate in violation of the affirmation of faith , or the abomination of human sacrifice forbidden and condemned many times in Tanakh in the harshest of terms. Again, if they were born members and are simply following ethical precepts of Torah, they are sinning in not worshipping God, but they are still fulfilling many Torah obligations to strive to righteousness, justice and mercy. A secular Jew has not committed idolatry. Many non Jews fail to grasp the significance of the strict obligation placed upon a Jew to NEVER worship anything other than God.

"There are Jews who practice witchcraft ("Jewitches"), homosexuality, even Buddism (Jew-Bu's), yet their Jewish status isn't even questioned.” < He knows this is a lie.  The Torah says no other gods, it doesn't name every false god out there. This preacher knows that Jews have told him this claim was a lie every time he'd said it formore than a year.  I note he also slips the sin of homosexuality in there among belief systems as if it is the same thing as the idolatry of  worshipping a Buddist goddess or Jesus or a Wiccan goddess.  Homosexuality is a sin in the Torah but it isn't one that separates the Jew from his people as God commands foreign worship does.


“Some Jews pick and choose which commandments from God they find personally "meaningful"--and flatly reject the rest--yet they are considered Jews.” < Isn’t this interesting, someone who wants Jews to IGNORE the core commandments from God in the Torah for Jews  complaining about cherry picking Jews! He's clearly not consistent especially when he insists upon ignoring direct commandments from God  for Jews nor does he observe concern over ",Do not bear false withess!

“But you let a God-fearing, Torah-observant son of Israel--circumcised on the eighth day, Bar Mitzvah'ed, and reared on synagogue life study the evidence and reach the conclusion that Jesus is the Messiah, and Presto-Chango, merely for this belief alone, he has supposedly lost his Jewish status and has morphed into a gentile. Could a bigger bunch of hogwash possibly exist? “<  First of all, I’ve never met or seen such a person who knew Judaism and followed it as a "God fearing, Torah observant" Jew who would decide that everything about it was wrong and then leave it for another religion. On the remote possibility that such a person did exist who would leave worship of God to worship Jesus, if they were an honest person they would certainly know that worship of Jesus is not Judaism.  His notion of a God fearing Torah observant person is someone who believes God lied to every man, woman and child at Sinai who affirmed God is ONE.  God told all Israel that God does not become a man.  The prophets all echoed that and said that no man becomes a god, either.  Yet, the core of Christian dogma, the New Testament, is that God either created a demigod through impregnating a human, OR became incarnate "in the flesh". There is no more egregious way to violate Torah POSSIBLE than to worship a man as a god or believe God became a man.

That is a sin that separates a Jew from God and from the purpose of the covenant of Israel.
Honest converts to Christianity from Judaism would not claim he’s still following Judaism. IF a previously Torah observant Jew were to decide to follow Jesus and rely on his sacrifice for atonement of sin rather than follow the Torah's and Judaism's precepts regarding these things that person would certainly know enough to realize he can’t follow contradictory belief systems. God calls human sacrifice an abomination and since we know that if someone "believes Torah" they would not believe in a human as a deity. Therefore, Jesus sacrifice was a human sacrifice, an abomination. Deicide is not possible since God does not die, God is not incarnate TO die.
Anyone actually raised to know a whit about Judaism who would reject it for Christianity would hopefully be a person  HONEST to remember that God declared human sacririce is an abomination for Jews, and know that worship of a Jew or through a Jew is an egregious violation of Torah to do based on even a rudimentary knowledge of Torah.

“And what's even more laughable (and so ridiculous that it leaves one reeling) is when you realize that JESUS CHRIST HIMSELF was a JEW! He never lost HIS Jewish status."  < Who knows? Nothing was written about him until more than a generation after his death. If Jesus was not a Jew he couldn’t have even been a messiah potential. That he finds his extreme perversions of what he's read from other Jewish posters,(Rabbis included) and his misrepresentations of Jewish law and history enough to make him “reel” in laughter, is revealing of the glee he takes in trying to create hatred and animosity to Jews by bearing false witness. I don’t want to sidetrack here so I’ll get back to addressing his absurd perversions of Judaism and history..

“In fact, the entire early Christian movement was simply an outgrowth of Judaism. The historical reality is that Jesus, the original apostles, and the entire original church were all Jewish. There were literally THOUSANDS of Jews who believed in Jesus, they were a part of the Jewish community, and they didn't somehow "stop being Jews" when they recognized Jesus as the Messiah."  < Hmm..how is it that somehow these “thousands” of Jews never wrote down anything during Jesus’ lifetime about him? We’ve got librarires full of Jewish writings contemporary to Jesus lifetime. Historical record indicates that rather than an outgrowth of Judaism it was an attempt of the colonizers and conquerors to assimilate Judaism into their Empire.


“This is the reason why the Jews lost the Second Jewish Revolt---Rabbi Akivah tried to acclaim Simon Bar Kokhba as the Messiah--which caused all of the Jews who believed in Jesus to have to step down rather than march under the banner of a false messiah. Rather than placing the blame on Rabbi Akivah for proclaiming a false messiah or on Bar Kokhba for BEING a false messiah, they blamed the Jews who believe in Jesus!!!! It was only after this point that this foolishness of trying to somehow renounce the Jewish status of believers in Jesus got started. It continues to this day“. <  This is an extremely absurd and bizarre attempt to pervert history. Christians had refused to ally themselves with the Jews against Roman persecution long before the Bar Kochba Revolt and were already considered a separate religion group by both Jews and Romans before this time.

BEFORE the Bar Kochba revolt and before Rabbi Akivah ..Rome had already considered Christians a separate group because the early Christians petitioned the Emperor to do just that, recognize that they were not Jews.  The objective historical evidence for this fact is that  the emperor Nerva (96-98 C.E.) freed the Christians from paying the Fiscus Judaicus, the Jewish capitation tax decreed as a punishment for the revolt of 66-73 C.E.   The tax was placed upon anyone who was said to be "living a Jewish life".

Clearly, the Romans already regarded the Christians as a separate religion group prior to this time. The Temple treasury was raided in 66CE by the Roman governor of Judea, Florius and a massacre of Jews in Jerusalem by the Romans took place.

The early Christians did not take part in the FIRST revolt triggered by this massacre. THEY separated from the customs, beliefs and from the Jewish people themselves by this time and the Romans recognized and rewarded this!

Christianity has never been a unified belief, from the earliest days of the Didache (instructions to the apostles on how to conduct church affairs) there were conflicts on how much Judaic influence should remain (was Jesus a god or not?) and it was often a very nasty affair. The Gnostics were largely killed off by their fellow Christians, but some Gnostic aspects do remain. A study of the Nag Hammadi library (translations from the Coptic are online) can help you discern this. Christianity really has little to do with Judaism. It's a mixture of Roman and Greek mystery religions and focuses on death with Hebrew names and mistranslated texts.
Things that I once thought must have been fabricated outright I later discovered were beliefs of the ancient Greeks and Romans. This was the longstanding battle for souls going on..the Hellenized Jews, those who had become apostate to Judaism, desired to entice other Jews to worship as the Greeks that they believed superior in philosophy and knowledge, so they created texts that tried to say..see this is what it was supposed to have been all along. However, reality was that those beliefs were identical to the beliefs and practices that the Torah demonized and prohibited for Jews.
Once one begins an in-depth study of the religious practices and beliefs of all the peoples surrounding the Jews in the centuries just preceding the beginning of Christianity, one can see these developments take place. It was a concerted effort to do away with Israel and Judaism.

A large percentage of the early church fathers who became martyrs did so at the hands of their co-religionists of competing sects of Christianity when Christianity was not so clearly defined as a tool of the Roman empire.

Any entity that would threaten Roman authority would be persecuted by the Romans. Perhaps the earliest Christians (a band of followers of a messiah hopeful would threaten Roman rule, since the prophetic vision of Judaism of "the messiah" is of a RULER, a king, who breaks the yolk of political oppression and persecution for all and brings about universal brotherhood, peace and knowledge of God) would most certainly have been a threat. But once the doctrine of the New Testament gelled, that changed the Tanakh concept of messiah meaning an anointed king, to mean a sacrifice for sin and a "kingdom" not of this world, this had effectively changed the Christians from being enemies of Rome to tools of Rome.

Thus began the conversion of the Romans!

Emperor Hadrian later attempted to wipe out Judaism after Jews revolted against the previous Emperor, Trajan. He built a Roman temple to Jupiter on top of the ruins of the old Jewish temple in Jerusalem, which had been destroyed in 70 CE, and is said to have burnt the Torah on top of the Temple Mount in 135 CE .
He then renamed Judea, Palestina, a Latinized version of the name of the Philistines, to insult the Jews and eliminate the history of Jewish presence.

The early followers of Jesus who had been awaiting his reincarnation separated themselves publicly from the Jews once again in the time of the 2nd revolt, and once again refused to ally themselves with the Jews and allied themselves to the Romans. This time instead of simply passively ignoring the plight of the Jewish people, early Christians took up arms with Romans against the Jews. This led to another messiah hopeful, Simeon Bar Kochba to view them as the enemies of Israel, thus, after the defeat of the Jews and the murder of Bar Kochba, the Chistians were not expelled along with the Jews. Rome rewarded them a SECOND time for their refusal to be allied to the Jews.
Simeon Bar Kochba's revolt that saw to the Christians allying themselves in arms to murder Jews, was a generation AFTER they had successfully petitioned Rome to be recognized as NOT being Jews, because they did not live a Jewish life.

After Constantine - First Christian Emperor of Rome (285-337 CE) the Roman empire was Christian.


That poster knew all of this *before* he concocted his revision of the history. I know he knew this because he’d read these things in answers I’d written before and I'd previously pointed out to him when he tried to claim that both the Roman expulsion and the Holocaust were punishment from God for “rejecting” Jesus.

How’s that for love, eh?

If these perversions are the kinds of things that are becoming commonplace in churches is another Holocaust soon to follow?

I did not alter any portion of the other person's words.